Chord Progressions

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Genin
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Yo,

Okay I don't get one little thing... how can chord progressions ever be like ii-V-i, or ii-IV-V-VII-i (just made that .... up). how can any chord progression NOT start on a tonic? or rather, how can your tonic be the 2? or 3 etc?
what do i then resolve to? the tonic, or dominant of THAT 2 or 3? or the tonic that the 2 or 3 ACTUALLY belongs to? does this make sense? it's killing me.
 

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vividox

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The ii isn't the tonic. I is always tonic. In a ii-V-I (etc) you are starting away from tonic and then moving towards it. There are no rules that say you have to start on tonic.
 

TaP

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The ii isn't the tonic. I is always tonic. In a ii-V-I (etc) you are starting away from tonic and then moving towards it. There are no rules that say you have to start on tonic.

That was a bit vague so here's what I took from that.

1) You don't have to start on a tonic.

2) If you have a ii-V-I, you're starting on the second degree of that I at the end of the progression?

3) If you don't have an (I) then you're to assume the structure of the chord progression based upon the key you're making it in?

As you can see I need details, examples maybe...

Aug4th, Noodle, or Solo where art thouu :scratch::wallbash:
 
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Yo,

Okay I don't get one little thing... how can chord progressions ever be like ii-V-i, or ii-IV-V-VII-i (just made that .... up). how can any chord progression NOT start on a tonic? or rather, how can your tonic be the 2? or 3 etc?
what do i then resolve to? the tonic, or dominant of THAT 2 or 3? or the tonic that the 2 or 3 ACTUALLY belongs to? does this make sense? it's killing me.

You're not required to start on the I chord. As long as the chords are in the key of whatever you're playing in, which they should be unless you're modulating, you will end up at the I chord eventually. You will still resolve to the I chord, even if you don't start on it. I might be a bit off, though, because it's been about a year since I've studied theory or really used it.

And just throwing this out there, starting on the ii chord doesn't change the tonic of the scale. You seem to be messing up your words a bit. The tonic is just the first degree of the scale. It's always the first degree of the scale. If you start on the ii chord in C major, the tonic is still C. If the tonic changed to the root note of the ii chord, you'd be playing the D dorian mode I believe (might be wrong, not very good on my modes).
 

vividox

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That was a bit vague so here's what I took from that.

1) You don't have to start on a tonic.

2) If you have a ii-V-I, you're starting on the second degree of that I at the end of the progression?

3) If you don't have an (I) then you're to assume the structure of the chord progression based upon the key you're making it in?

As you can see I need details, examples maybe...

Aug4th, Noodle, or Solo where art thouu :scratch::wallbash:
1) Correct.
2) Yeah. Tonic is always I, so if your chord progression is ii-V-I you are starting on the second in the key you are playing in, then moving to the fifth of the key, then moving to tonic.
3) I've never come across a chord progression that doesn't have tonic in it somewhere. You could certainly come up with one, but it would merely be academic. There is really no reason for a chord progression like that to exist, as you could simply re-write it in another key to give it a tonic.
 

tedtan

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1) You don't have to start on a tonic.

Correct. While many pieces of music (and chord progressions) begin on the tonic, there are quite a few that do not.


2) If you have a ii-V-I, you're starting on the second degree of that I at the end of the progression?

Correct. The tonic in tonal music is always the one. If major, it is written as I, if minor it is written as i. Either way, the one is the tonic and the other numbers relate back to the one.


3) If you don't have an (I) then you're to assume the structure of the chord progression based upon the key you're making it in?

Chord progressions without a one exists, but are semi-unusual in tonal music. The most common way I've seen it is as a two chord vamp (say a IV-V-IV-V progression or a ii-vii-ii-vii progression) used in one section of a song, like a break down or short solo section before resolving back to the one at the beginning of the next section. (You'll sometimes hear that in the verse or pre-chorus section of a song, too, where it then will resolve back to the one at the beginning of the chorus).
 

TaP

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Ooookay everyone came in clutch, I read all responses. I was using tonic in wrong context, good catch, I want to sound like I know wtf I'm talking about lol.

& okay for sure guys thanks. That honestly clears up a LOT.
 

vividox

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Chord progressions without a one exists, but are semi-unusual in tonal music. The most common way I've seen it is as a two chord vamp (say a IV-V-IV-V progression or a ii-vii-ii-vii progression) used in one section of a song, like a break down or short solo section before resolving back to the one at the beginning of the next section. (You'll sometimes hear that in the verse or pre-chorus section of a song, too, where it then will resolve back to the one at the beginning of the chorus).
That's a really good example I overlooked. I was thinking more of a progression of the entire piece rather than a progression by section. :yesway:
 

Mr. Big Noodles

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That was a bit vague so here's what I took from that.

1) You don't have to start on a tonic.

2) If you have a ii-V-I, you're starting on the second degree of that I at the end of the progression?

3) If you don't have an (I) then you're to assume the structure of the chord progression based upon the key you're making it in?

As you can see I need details, examples maybe...

Aug4th, Noodle, or Solo where art thouu :scratch::wallbash:

This is correct. Tonality is not where you start, but where you end up (or rather what the harmony says is the tonic, but it usually means that you conclude on a tonic chord).

Beethoven's first symphony begins with the progression V7/IV IV V7 I V7/V V. Cheeky bastard.



3) I've never come across a chord progression that doesn't have tonic in it somewhere. You could certainly come up with one, but it would merely be academic. There is really no reason for a chord progression like that to exist, as you could simply re-write it in another key to give it a tonic.



The first tonic chord appears in measure 20, after nearly two minutes of music and far away from the starting key. You're not likely to hear an entire song or piece that never touches the tonic, but individual phrases and sections may avoid resolution to the tonic. In that case, it's usually a process of dominant prolongation. It's not unheard of to have ii V ii V ii V ii V... on and on. I recall hearing some Latin tune in which that was the case, but I can't remember what it was.

This is partially the case in the first song from Schumann's Dichterliebe cycle:

Im wunderschönen Monat Mai


fcdc38f7da4f60769304d85f8fa51664b3816600.png


The first few chords are Bm C#7(♭9) Bm C#7(♭9) Bm E7 A. The Bm and C#7(♭9) are iv V in the key of F# minor. Where do you see those resolving to an F#? Nowhere, that's where. Of course, when the voice comes in, it gets lame and resolvey with a ii V I in A major.

tl;dr: After the tonic, the place to go is the dominant.
 


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