As for the apocryphal, these are books that are accepted by the Roman Catholic church into their bibles, but not typically into the protestant bibles. Originally, all Jewish scripture was in Hebrew. Jews are conquered and it is all translated into Greek as they must all speak Greek.
Not quite. Ptolemy II wanted all of the hebrew scriptures written down in greek for the library in Alexandria. This greek translation of the hebrew scriptures is known as the septuagint. How this is mainly different is that the septuagint includes 7 more books than the hebrew old testament. These 7 books are considered canon by the Catholic Church, and apocryphal by non-Catholic Churches. These 7 books were considered scripture by the Jews until the late first century, hypothetically at the council of Jamnia, when the Hebrew scriptures were finalized and 7 books were omitted.
When the canon of scripture was being considered, the septuagint was used for the old testament because that is what was widely used in that area at that time, it was already in greek and many old testament quotes made by the apostles references the septuagint, not the hebrew, so it stands to reason that even the apostles used and were familiar with the greek version.When the early church sits down and decides which books are going to be accepted into their cannon, they decide to go back to the early books that have the original Hebrew. There are several books that do not have copies of existing Hebrew translations, these are considered the Apocryphal books. So they are accepted by the Catholic church as non-canonical books because they are still (if I recall correctly) accepted into the current Jewish canon. The argument with which they include them is that Jesus would have been studying them. With the discovery of the dead sea scrolls several of the apocryphal books have found (surprise) original Hebrew translations. If you read them, they're really not particularly meaningful or drastically change the old Testament story.
This isn't entirely accurate. What would become the final canon of scripture was originally decided upon in 382ad at the council of Rome, ratified at the council of Hippo without change in 393ad, ratified again without change at the council of Carthage in 407, and lastly, again without change, at Trent. The reason it was an issue over a millenia later was because Martin Luther challenged the inspiredness of the septuagint, preferring the hebrew instead. It is probable that this had political motivation as Luther disputed the doctrine of purgatory, and 2 Maccabees provides scriptural support for it. 2 Maccabbes is however absent from the hebrew scriptures, possibly explaining Luther's preference. Such preference has precedence, for example, Luther also questioned the inspiredness of James which contradicts his doctrine of sola fide. It should also be mentioned that the complete, finalized, hebrew scriptures didn't exist in written form until the late first century, after Christianity was established.At the council of Trent as late as the 16th century, the Catholic church accepted more Apocryphal books as being "inspired". Admittedly, I have a "New American Version" of the bible as well as my preferred translation (New International Version), but my studies have not lead me to the Apocryphal books (yet).
The bible contained these seven disputed books since the late 4th century. Even the original King James bible, a very popular non-Catholic translation, contained them until 1827. The Catholic Church did not add these books at Trent, they were removed at a later date by non-Catholic translators.
That's my $0.02 anyway